Does that person then by definition, not HAVE the same type of dreams
because they are one of degree of complexity [or more] in their thought
Does a person with an atypical severe intellectual impairment ... dream
differently to the average person?
If they have a medical standard Intelligence Quotient of say 20, surely
they could not possess the SAME level of language as an expression of
thought? Nevertheless, they may very well have an equal level of
I would say, sure, people with various levels of language ability will dream
and experience differently than others. That's partly what gives us
different experiences. While our, say, non-linguistic experience of a
sunset is going to be very similar, our description of what we experience is
going to be different, which contributes to a slightly different experience.
Or our experience of reading Eliot's "The Waste Land." That's going to be
quite different depending on our background with language. But our
non-linguistic experiences, being more or less hinged on how our nervous
system is set up, is going to be more or less the same.
p.s. If your "triple helix" is important in some way to interpreting what
you are talking about, then by all means, fill us in. I just assumed it
meant something like three interconnected thoughts, like they had to be
understood more or less holistically rather than atomistically.